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So, this is an anti corruption deal whereby the American President is required to withhold Congress approved military aid payments to Ukraine as a part of the procedure and demand that one of his political opponents' sons be investigated by them before said investigation can take place is it? I see, but the thought does strike me that it's all a complicated for a deal whereby two countries are co-operating isn't it? I find your use of the word "now" in your last messages interesting.
My first post on this subject made it clear that I think both impeachments went entirely along, deeply biased, party lines with more consideration given to that than any objective study of any evidence of wrongdoing. All I was asking is what makes one different from the other to the extent that one was an "attempted coup" and the other wasn't? Your answers in this exchange have only proved what's known already - you are as deeply biased as the politicians on both sides and would be arguing completely differently if Trump had been charged with Clinton's "offence" and vice versa.