Just discovered (after researching this for about twelve years) that an aunt's husband committed bigamy.
The two married in 1921 ( I have the certificate) and separated, having no children. Her husband remarried in 1941 and described himself as a 'widower' (again, I have the certificate). But my aunt was alive then (indeed, I have a photo of her with me taken around ten years later). She died in 1966.
The bigamist husband died without making a will (ie intestate) in 1967 leaving an estate of around £1,000.
So, who should have inherited the £1,000?
Answers on a postcard......