Originally Posted by
the other bob wilson
My first post on this subject made it clear that I think both impeachments went entirely along, deeply biased, party lines with more consideration given to that than any objective study of any evidence of wrongdoing. All I was asking is what makes one different from the other to the extent that one was an "attempted coup" and the other wasn't? Your answers in this exchange have only proved what's known already - you are as deeply biased as the politicians on both sides and would be arguing completely differently if Trump had been charged with Clinton's "offence" and vice versa.