Why is it unequal?Originally Posted by Feedback
Because poor Irish catholics were treated with contempt and allowed to starve, die in vast numbers and in some cases emigrate to survive whilst the predominantly protestant voters and industrial workers of Britain were relatively protected.
Many historians have concluded that the direst effects of the famine were a result of deliberate government policy - not just neglect.
That is not to say that industrial or agricultural communities in Britain didn't suffer during bad harvests or during trade downturns - as was a regular occurrence during the 50 years leading up to the famine - but the Westminster government (and the monarchy) would never have allowed death and suffering on 'the mainland' to the extent they were willing to see in Ireland.
Nothing much to do with federations, individual states or influence over law making. In fact after the 1832 Reform Act (and after Catholic Emancipation) Irish people were as well represented (as in not well represented) in parliament as the English, Scots or Welsh - in some cases with a more relaxed property qualification for the vote. But they were not the people starving to death.
All subjects of Queen Vic - but some more equal than others!
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