Originally Posted by
AfricanBluebird
While you're right to ask for more context, let's explore that a bit then shall we. We know where it is though and we have history, census etc so lets explore those....
There were between 60,000 and 80,000 Jewish people in Palestine in 1920s and made up less than 17% of the population of Palestine. No Jewish homes were claimed by Palestinians in the 1920's. In 1517 there were only 5000 Jewish people living in Israel and that number didn't go up significantly (it only reached 60000 by the 1920s). Jewish people hadn't lived there in large volumes until the 1950's after the formation of Israel in 48.
Additionally in the areas where Jewish 'settlers' have come to kick out the Palestinians haven't had Jewish people living there for 1000's of years (a small area of the West Bank the exception where a small Jewish population left in 1948 during the war.
However, that is all academic as this case is in Ijzim, where there hadn't a Jewish population living there for thousands of years.... in 1922, the decade where you proposed that perhaps Palestinians took Jewish homes and now back to reclaim them, there were no Jewish people recorded in the 1922 census (1610 Muslims and 1 Christian!). In fact there have been NO recoded Jewish people living in Ljzim (now renamed Kerem Maharal) since recording began in 1596 until 2006 when Israel extended their illegal settlement policy!
Native Americans have lost their land to settlers far more recently than Jewish ancestors lost theirs in the Israel / Palestine.
The point is that this house has been stolen from Palestinians, breaking international law, under the right wing policy of the Israeli government to provide 'settlers' with homes and effectively making indigenous Palestinians homeless and squeezing them into an small geographical area stripping them of their rights and access to health and education and jobs .
So feedback, you're scenario is preposterous both mathematically and geographically.