Originally Posted by
Heisenberg
It was sample-based research of a town/city in Germany, if I remember correctly. It was based on people who were also symptomless. Like you said, he used it to try to prove his argument that day about how it must mean that Germany have 10x more cases than they were reporting (it didn't).
When he was making a point about there being no symptoms in another argument, I raised the research which he had said meant there was 10x more cases in Germany - to show he was being hyprocrital. I didn't get a response.
I wonder if he will be returning to this thread to explain how more than twice as many deaths in care homes equates to dealing with them better.
If he's got a good argument for it that proves me wrong, I'll put my hands up... But we'll see.