Quote Originally Posted by Rjk View Post
Yeah, just my opinion, but I would say so.

He "married" the second woman 20 years after the first and was (effectively) married to her for 25 years, whereas the first wife presumably had no contact with him after they separated, otherwise she would have known about the bigamy. If the bloke was a house, she would have had squatters rights by then

Also, reading it again, the first wife died before the bigamistanyway, so she couldn't inherit anything. Then wouldn't the money default to the second woman as his common law wife, having lived together for 25 years?
It was just the 'morally' bit I was struggling with really