
Originally Posted by
the other bob wilson
Because it doesn't automatically follow that all English Brexit voters are/were tories. What is there not to get about a logic which says that English over 65s tended to vote a certain way in 2016, there are, apparently something like 150,000 such voters living in Wales where there was an 82,000 Leave majority, so those older English voters must have had a big impact on the outcome?