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lol but I just wonder if they can use that figure to project the probable infection across the board. 25% of those tested have it and as I said they are in what are rated as high risk, but can the clinicians/advisors use that figure to look at the whole population?
If (as they now appear to think) someone whop has had it cannot get it again, at least in the short term there will gradually be less and less of the population at risk. I was just wondering if the can work out the probably time line to a point where they consider it under complete control
I'm pretty sure the 42,000 in Wales who have been tested will have been health workers, care workers, the emergency services, people in hospital, people in care homes, etc. And I suspect a significant percentage of those people will have had to be displaying symptoms in order to get tested in the first place.
Random members of the public with no symptoms haven't been tested. Therefore, the figures you quoted are highly unlikely to be in any way accurate as regards the general population.
What I read was not that, but that there were higher rates of infection in other occupations. The reason given was that although NHS workers are in high risk environments that have a higher level of protection generally than people in other risk occupations.
the arcticle I read actually suggested that the infection rate amongst NHS workers is about the same percentage as in the general population.