Quote Originally Posted by Vindec View Post
If your mother and father are still alive but your mother is in a care home isn't the assumption made that only your mother's share of the house (50% assuming tenants in common) is taken into consideration? Furthermore would your father be required to sell the house he lives if your mother dies before him?

Sorry for the daft question but I am trying to get to grips with my understanding of the past and present situation because things must have changed since I was involved in this issue for my parents.
Mum passed away October 2019. At that point, dad became sole house owner. He went into care February 2019. His inheritance and savings (to pay for care) would have run out (£23250 allowed for in England) roughly March this year. So, empty house had to be sold (completed January this year) to pay around £1100 a week for food accomodation and nursing. In any calculations for assets, a house is divvied up 50/50 between spouses. Mum was cared for at home and she paid the maximum of £90 a week which was means tested (in Cardiff). Not sure if we would have had to go down the differed option on the house to pay for mum's residential care if dad had still been living in the house and Mum reached a point of having £50k in assets. I do vaguely remember asking the question 2 years ago and seem to recall that "no" house cannot be sold to pay for care if occupied by a spouses. Best seek specialist advice on that one if it applies. As it was, Mum died at home.